50 Likely Objective Questions + Theory Questions Across All Major Subjects | Use of English, Mathematics, Biology, Chemistry, Physics, Economics, Government, Literature
Who Is This For? This material is for Nigerian students preparing for the JAMB UTME 2026/2027. It covers 50 likely objective questions with answers and explanations across core UTME subjects, plus likely theory questions for Post-UTME and supplementary purposes. The approved JAMB novel for 2026 is The Lekki Headmaster. SEO Keywords: JAMB 2026 questions and answers, UTME 2026 likely questions, JAMB past questions 2026, JAMB 2026 English Mathematics Biology Chemistry Physics, JAMB preparation Nigeria 2026 2027
Part 1: Your AI Study Prompts for JAMB 2026/2027 and WAEC 2026/2027
Use these prompts with any AI tool or tutor to generate more practice questions for your specific subjects. Copy each prompt exactly as written.
Part 2: Everything You Need to Know About JAMB UTME 2026/2027
JAMB 2026/2027 Key Facts Full Name: Joint Admissions and Matriculation Board (JAMB) UTME Exam Format: Computer-Based Test (CBT) Number of Subjects: 4 subjects (Use of English is compulsory + 3 others) Total Questions: 180 questions (Use of English: 60, Others: 40 each) Time Allowed: 2 hours Score Range: 0 to 400 2026 JAMB Novel: The Lekki Headmaster 2026 Main Exam: April 16, 2026 Registration Fee: UTME only (no Mock) = NGN 7,200 UTME with Mock = NGN 8,700 Minimum Age: 16 years on or before September 30 of the exam year
JAMB Subject Combinations by Course Category
Science (Medicine, Engineering, Sciences): Use of English + Mathematics + Physics + Chemistry (or Biology) Commercial (Accounting, Business Admin, Economics): Use of English + Mathematics + Economics + one of: Commerce/Accounting/Government Arts and Humanities (Law, Mass Comm, English, History): Use of English + Literature + Government/History + CRS or one Social Science Social Sciences (Sociology, Political Science, Psychology): Use of English + Government/Economics/CRS + two others as required by course Education (All fields): Use of English + the relevant subject combination for the main field of study
Part 3: 50 JAMB UTME 2026/2027 Likely Questions with Answers
Each question below is formatted exactly as it appears in the JAMB CBT format. The subject is shown in brackets. Read the question, choose your answer, then check the answer box below.
USE OF ENGLISH (Questions 1-12)
Q1 [Use of English]: In each of the following sentences, there is one underlined word and one gap. From the list of words provided, choose the one that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word and that will, at the same time, correctly fill the gap in the sentence. The general’s BRAVE conduct inspired the soldiers, but the politician’s ______ behaviour disappointed the public.
A. cowardly B. cunning C. harsh D. reckless
ANSWER: A. cowardlyBrave means showing courage. Its antonym (opposite) is cowardly, meaning lacking courage. This also makes grammatical sense in the sentence.
Q2 [Use of English]: Choose the option that best completes the following sentence. The committee, along with the chairman, ______ expected to submit the report by Friday.
A. are B. were C. is D. have been
ANSWER: C. isWhen a phrase introduced by ‘along with’ separates the subject from the verb, the verb agrees with the main subject, not the interrupting phrase. ‘The committee’ is singular, so ‘is’ is correct.
Q3 [Use of English]: From the words lettered A to D below, choose the word that has the same vowel sound as the one represented by the letters underlined. HEARD
A. heart B. heat C. herd D. hire
ANSWER: C. herdThe underlined vowel in HEARD is the /ɜː/ sound as in bird, word, and herd. The word herd shares this exact vowel sound.
Q4 [Use of English]: Choose the option nearest in meaning to the underlined expression. The lecturer told the students to burn the midnight oil if they wanted to pass.
A. study very hard late into the night B. light candles while reading C. stay awake all night talking D. burn their books
ANSWER: A. study very hard late into the nightTo ‘burn the midnight oil’ is an idiom meaning to work or study late into the night. It originates from the days before electricity when people used oil lamps.
Q5 [Use of English]: In the following passage, the numbered gaps indicate missing words. Choose the most appropriate word for each gap. Education is widely regarded as the ______ of development in any nation.
A. engine B. enemy C. obstacle D. burden
ANSWER: A. engineIn formal and essay writing, education is commonly described as the ‘engine’ of development, meaning it drives or powers national progress. This collocation appears frequently in Nigerian English essays.
Q6 [Use of English]: Identify the figure of speech in the following sentence. The sun smiled at the city of Lagos.
A. Simile B. Personification C. Metaphor D. Hyperbole
ANSWER: B. PersonificationPersonification gives human qualities (smiling) to a non-human thing (the sun). This is not a simile because no ‘like’ or ‘as’ is used, and not a metaphor because the sun is not said to BE something else.
Q7 [Use of English]: The Lekki Headmaster by Cyprian Ekwensi is the approved JAMB novel for 2026. In the novel, the headmaster’s greatest challenge was his:
A. lack of formal education B. determination to maintain discipline in a corrupt environment C. refusal to cooperate with parents D. fear of school inspectors
ANSWER: B. determination to maintain discipline in a corrupt environmentThe central theme of The Lekki Headmaster explores a principled educator’s struggle to uphold standards and discipline in a community marked by social pressure and compromise. This is the core conflict of the novel.
Q8 [Use of English]: Choose the interpretation that best captures the meaning of the following proverb. A stitch in time saves nine.
A. Sewing clothes prevents waste B. Fixing a problem early prevents it from getting worse C. Nine is always better than one D. Time management is about counting
ANSWER: B. Fixing a problem early prevents it from getting worseThis proverb advises prompt action. One stitch taken early prevents nine stitches later. It is used to encourage addressing problems before they escalate.
Q9 [Use of English]: In the sentence below, identify the type of clause underlined. The book that was stolen from the library was very expensive.
A. Adverbial clause B. Noun clause C. Relative clause D. Conditional clause
ANSWER: C. Relative clauseA relative clause modifies a noun using relative pronouns such as that, who, or which. ‘That was stolen from the library’ modifies the noun ‘book.’ It is therefore a relative (also called adjective) clause.
Q10 [Use of English]: Choose the option that correctly fills the gap. By the time the ambulance arrived, the patient ______ unconscious for two hours.
A. was B. has been C. had been D. is
ANSWER: C. had beenThis sentence requires the past perfect tense because the action (being unconscious) began before another past action (the ambulance arriving). The past perfect ‘had been’ correctly expresses this earlier completed past state.
Q11 [Use of English]: From the words below, choose the word that is correctly spelt.
A. Accomodation B. Neccessity C. Perseverance D. Occurence
ANSWER: C. PerseverancePerseverance is spelled correctly. Accommodation has double m and double c. Necessity has one c and one s. Occurrence has double c and double r.
Q12 [Use of English]: Identify the part of speech of the underlined word. The old woman walked slowly towards the market.
A. Adjective B. Noun C. Adverb D. Verb
ANSWER: C. AdverbSlowly is an adverb. It modifies the verb walked by describing how the action was performed. Adverbs often end in -ly and answer questions like ‘how,’ ‘when,’ ‘where,’ or ‘to what extent.’
MATHEMATICS (Questions 13-22)
Q13 [Mathematics]: Simplify: (3x² – 12) ÷ (x – 2)
A. 3(x + 2) B. 3x + 6 C. 3(x – 2) D. x + 4
ANSWER: A. 3(x + 2)First factorise the numerator: 3x² – 12 = 3(x² – 4) = 3(x+2)(x-2). Dividing by (x-2) gives 3(x+2). This uses the difference of two squares: a²-b² = (a+b)(a-b).
Q14 [Mathematics]: A car travels 180 km in 2.5 hours. What is its average speed in km/h?
A. 45 km/h B. 60 km/h C. 72 km/h D. 80 km/h
ANSWER: C. 72 km/hAverage speed = Distance ÷ Time = 180 ÷ 2.5 = 72 km/h. Always use the formula: Speed = Distance/Time.
Q15 [Mathematics]: Find the value of x in the equation: 2^(x+1) = 16
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5
ANSWER: B. 3Express 16 as a power of 2: 16 = 2⁴. So 2^(x+1) = 2⁴, therefore x+1 = 4, giving x = 3. When bases are equal, exponents are equal.
Q16 [Mathematics]: The mean of five numbers is 8. If four of the numbers are 6, 10, 7, and 9, find the fifth number.
A. 6 B. 7 C. 8 D. 9
ANSWER: C. 8Mean = Sum ÷ Count. Sum = 8 × 5 = 40. Sum of four known numbers = 6+10+7+9 = 32. Fifth number = 40 – 32 = 8.
Q17 [Mathematics]: Convert 0.375 to a fraction in its lowest terms.
A. 3/7 B. 3/8 C. 5/8 D. 7/16
ANSWER: B. 3/80.375 = 375/1000. Dividing numerator and denominator by 125 gives 3/8. Verify: 3 ÷ 8 = 0.375.
Q18 [Mathematics]: What is the area of a circle with diameter 14 cm? (Take π = 22/7)
A. 44 cm² B. 154 cm² C. 176 cm² D. 308 cm²
ANSWER: B. 154 cm²Diameter = 14, so radius = 7. Area = πr² = (22/7) × 7 × 7 = 22 × 7 = 154 cm².
A. (3x – 1)(2x + 3) B. (2x + 3)(3x – 1) C. (6x – 1)(x + 3) D. (3x + 1)(2x – 3)
ANSWER: A. (3x – 1)(2x + 3)To factorise 6x² + 7x – 3: find two numbers that multiply to (6×-3)=-18 and add to 7: these are 9 and -2. Rewrite as 6x² + 9x – 2x – 3 = 3x(2x+3) – 1(2x+3) = (3x-1)(2x+3).
Q20 [Mathematics]: If log₁₀ 2 = 0.3010, find log₁₀ 8.
A. 0.6020 B. 0.9030 C. 2.4080 D. 0.3010
ANSWER: B. 0.9030log₁₀ 8 = log₁₀ 2³ = 3 × log₁₀ 2 = 3 × 0.3010 = 0.9030. Use the power rule of logarithms: log aⁿ = n log a.
Q21 [Mathematics]: A man bought a television for ₦45,000 and sold it for ₦54,000. What is his percentage profit?
ANSWER: B. 4√3√75 = 5√3, √48 = 4√3, √27 = 3√3. So: 5√3 – 4√3 + 3√3 = 4√3.
BIOLOGY (Questions 23-30)
Q23 [Biology]: Which of the following is NOT a function of the mammalian liver?
A. Production of bile B. Deamination of excess amino acids C. Secretion of insulin D. Storage of glycogen
ANSWER: C. Secretion of insulinInsulin is produced by the beta cells of the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas, NOT the liver. The liver performs all the other functions listed: bile production, deamination (breaking down amino acids), and glycogen storage.
Q24 [Biology]: The process by which plants lose water through tiny pores in the leaves is called:
A. Transpiration B. Respiration C. Guttation D. Photosynthesis
ANSWER: A. TranspirationTranspiration is the evaporation of water from plant surfaces, mainly through stomata in leaves. Guttation refers to liquid water being excreted (not evaporated). Respiration is a chemical process releasing energy.
Q25 [Biology]: Which blood group is known as the universal donor?
A. AB B. A C. B D. O
ANSWER: D. OBlood group O has no A or B antigens on red blood cells, so it can be donated to recipients of all blood groups without triggering an immune reaction. AB is the universal recipient, not donor.
Q26 [Biology]: In genetics, the law of segregation states that:
A. genes on the same chromosome are inherited together B. two alleles for each trait separate during gamete formation C. all traits are determined by environment D. dominant genes always suppress recessive ones
ANSWER: B. two alleles for each trait separate during gamete formationMendel’s Law of Segregation states that each organism carries two alleles for each trait, and these alleles separate during meiosis so that each gamete carries only one allele for each trait.
Q27 [Biology]: Which of the following is the correct sequence of ecological organisation from smallest to largest?
A. Community, Population, Organism, Ecosystem B. Organism, Population, Community, Ecosystem C. Ecosystem, Community, Population, Organism D. Population, Organism, Community, Ecosystem
ANSWER: B. Organism, Population, Community, EcosystemThe correct ecological hierarchy from smallest to largest is: Organism (single individual), Population (group of the same species), Community (all species in an area), Ecosystem (community plus physical environment).
Q28 [Biology]: The organelle responsible for protein synthesis in a cell is the:
A. Mitochondria B. Ribosome C. Golgi apparatus D. Lysosome
ANSWER: B. RibosomeRibosomes are the sites of protein synthesis (translation). Mitochondria produce energy (ATP). The Golgi apparatus packages and distributes proteins. Lysosomes contain digestive enzymes.
Q29 [Biology]: Which of the following is an example of mutualism?
A. A tapeworm living in the human intestine B. Lichens (algae and fungi living together) C. A bird eating insects off a cow’s back D. A hermit crab using an empty shell
ANSWER: B. Lichens (algae and fungi living together)Mutualism is a relationship where both organisms benefit. Lichens are a classic example: algae provide food through photosynthesis; fungi provide shelter and water absorption. A tapeworm in humans is parasitism.
Q30 [Biology]: Which of the following hormones is responsible for the ‘fight or flight’ response in humans?
A. Insulin B. Thyroxine C. Adrenaline D. Oestrogen
ANSWER: C. AdrenalineAdrenaline (epinephrine), produced by the adrenal medulla, triggers the fight or flight response: increasing heart rate, dilating airways, and redirecting blood to muscles when danger is perceived.
CHEMISTRY (Questions 31-38)
Q31 [Chemistry]: The process of passing an electric current through a liquid to cause a chemical reaction is called:
A. Electrolysis B. Oxidation C. Reduction D. Distillation
ANSWER: A. ElectrolysisElectrolysis is the decomposition of an ionic compound by passing direct electric current through it in molten or aqueous solution form. It is used industrially for extracting metals and electroplating.
Q32 [Chemistry]: Which of the following is a physical change?
A. Burning of wood B. Rusting of iron C. Boiling of water D. Fermentation of sugar
ANSWER: C. Boiling of waterA physical change does not alter the chemical composition of a substance. Boiling water changes water from liquid to vapour but remains H₂O. Burning, rusting, and fermentation all produce new chemical substances.
Q33 [Chemistry]: The atomic number of an element is 17. To which group in the periodic table does it belong?
A. Group I B. Group VI C. Group VII D. Group VIII
ANSWER: C. Group VIIElement with atomic number 17 is Chlorine (Cl). Its electronic configuration is 2,8,7, meaning it has 7 electrons in its outermost shell, placing it in Group VII (the halogens).
Q34 [Chemistry]: Which of the following gases is used in fire extinguishers?
A. Oxygen B. Carbon monoxide C. Carbon dioxide D. Nitrogen
ANSWER: C. Carbon dioxideCarbon dioxide is denser than air and does not support combustion, making it effective in smothering fires by cutting off the oxygen supply. It is widely used in CO₂ fire extinguishers.
Q35 [Chemistry]: What is the pH of a neutral solution?
A. 0 B. 7 C. 10 D. 14
ANSWER: B. 7The pH scale runs from 0 to 14. A pH of 7 is neutral (pure water). Below 7 is acidic; above 7 is alkaline/basic. Strong acids have pH close to 0; strong bases have pH close to 14.
Q36 [Chemistry]: Which of the following is the IUPAC name for CH₃CH₂OH?
A. Methanol B. Ethanol C. Propanol D. Ethanoic acid
ANSWER: B. EthanolCH₃CH₂OH has two carbon atoms and an OH (hydroxyl) group, making it an alcohol. With 2 carbons, the IUPAC prefix is ‘eth-‘ and the suffix for alcohols is ‘-anol,’ giving ethanol.
Q37 [Chemistry]: Calculate the relative molecular mass of H₂SO₄. (H=1, S=32, O=16)
A. 64 B. 80 C. 96 D. 98
ANSWER: D. 98H₂SO₄ contains: 2 H = 2×1 = 2, 1 S = 32, 4 O = 4×16 = 64. Total = 2 + 32 + 64 = 98.
Q38 [Chemistry]: Which of the following describes an exothermic reaction?
A. A reaction that absorbs heat from the surroundings B. A reaction that releases heat to the surroundings C. A reaction that requires light to proceed D. A reaction that only occurs at high temperature
ANSWER: B. A reaction that releases heat to the surroundingsExothermic reactions release energy (usually as heat) to the surroundings, causing the temperature of the surroundings to rise. Combustion and neutralisation are common examples. Endothermic reactions absorb heat.
PHYSICS (Questions 39-44)
Q39 [Physics]: Which of the following is a scalar quantity?
A. Velocity B. Displacement C. Force D. Speed
ANSWER: D. SpeedScalar quantities have magnitude only. Speed has magnitude (e.g. 60 km/h) but no direction. Velocity, displacement, and force are all vector quantities because they have both magnitude and direction.
Q40 [Physics]: A body of mass 5 kg is acted upon by a force of 20 N. What is its acceleration?
A. 2 m/s² B. 4 m/s² C. 10 m/s² D. 100 m/s²
ANSWER: B. 4 m/s²Newton’s Second Law: F = ma, therefore a = F/m = 20/5 = 4 m/s².
Q41 [Physics]: What type of wave is a sound wave?
A. Transverse wave B. Electromagnetic wave C. Longitudinal wave D. Surface wave
ANSWER: C. Longitudinal waveSound waves are longitudinal waves: the particles of the medium vibrate parallel to the direction of wave travel (compressions and rarefactions). Light waves are transverse waves.
Q42 [Physics]: The unit of electrical resistance is the:
A. Ampere B. Volt C. Ohm D. Watt
ANSWER: C. OhmElectrical resistance is measured in Ohms (Ω), named after Georg Simon Ohm who discovered Ohm’s Law: V = IR. Ampere measures current, Volt measures potential difference, Watt measures power.
Q43 [Physics]: Which of the following correctly states the principle of conservation of energy?
A. Energy can be created but not destroyed B. Energy can be destroyed but not created C. Energy can neither be created nor destroyed D. Energy changes form but the total amount increases
ANSWER: C. Energy can neither be created nor destroyedThe Law of Conservation of Energy states that energy cannot be created or destroyed; it can only be transformed from one form to another. The total energy of an isolated system remains constant.
Q44 [Physics]: What is the frequency of a wave with a period of 0.02 seconds?
A. 0.02 Hz B. 20 Hz C. 50 Hz D. 100 Hz
ANSWER: C. 50 HzFrequency = 1 ÷ Period = 1 ÷ 0.02 = 50 Hz. Frequency and period are reciprocals of each other.
ECONOMICS (Questions 45-47)
Q45 [Economics]: The law of demand states that, all other things being equal:
A. as price increases, demand increases B. as price increases, demand decreases C. as income rises, demand falls D. as supply falls, demand rises
ANSWER: B. as price increases, demand decreasesThe Law of Demand establishes an inverse relationship between price and quantity demanded, holding all other factors constant (ceteris paribus). When price rises, consumers buy less; when price falls, they buy more.
Q46 [Economics]: Which of the following is an example of a public good?
A. A private hospital B. Street lighting C. A bottle of Coca-Cola D. A cinema ticket
ANSWER: B. Street lightingPublic goods are non-excludable (you cannot stop anyone from using them) and non-rivalrous (one person’s use does not reduce availability to others). Street lighting fits both criteria. The others are private goods.
Q47 [Economics]: What does GDP stand for?
A. Gross Domestic Profit B. Gross Domestic Product C. General Development Plan D. Government Domestic Programme
ANSWER: B. Gross Domestic ProductGDP (Gross Domestic Product) is the total monetary value of all goods and services produced within a country’s borders in a specific time period. It is the primary measure of a country’s economic output.
GOVERNMENT (Questions 48-50)
Q48 [Government]: The 1999 Constitution of the Federal Republic of Nigeria provides for how many tiers of government?
A. Two B. Three C. Four D. Five
ANSWER: B. ThreeThe 1999 Constitution of Nigeria established three tiers of government: the Federal Government (centre), State Governments (36 states), and Local Government Councils (774 LGAs). This is the federal structure Nigeria currently operates.
Q49 [Government]: Separation of powers in a democratic state refers to the division of government authority between:
A. The President and Vice President B. Legislature, Executive, and Judiciary C. Federal and State governments D. Political parties and civil society
ANSWER: B. Legislature, Executive, and JudiciarySeparation of powers, a doctrine associated with Montesquieu, divides government into three branches: the Legislature (makes laws), the Executive (implements laws), and the Judiciary (interprets laws). This prevents concentration of power.
Q50 [Government]: Which of the following best defines sovereignty?
A. The right of citizens to vote in elections B. The supreme and absolute authority of a state C. The power of political parties to campaign D. The ability of the military to defend borders
ANSWER: B. The supreme and absolute authority of a stateSovereignty is the supreme, absolute, and uncontested authority that a state exercises within its own territory. It has two dimensions: internal sovereignty (supreme power within borders) and external sovereignty (independence from other states).
Part 4: Likely JAMB/Post-UTME Theory Questions with Model Answers
These theory-style questions prepare you for Post-UTME screening examinations and supplementary tests. Many universities ask short theory questions as part of their departmental screening process.
USE OF ENGLISH: Theory Questions
Theory Q1: Write a composition of about 200 words on the topic: The Role of Education in Nigerian Development.
Model Answer: Education remains one of the most powerful tools for national development. In Nigeria, a country of over 200 million people with vast natural resources and human potential, education serves as the foundation upon which sustainable growth must be built. Academic training equips citizens with the skills needed to participate meaningfully in the economy. Engineers, doctors, teachers, entrepreneurs, and policymakers are all products of educational systems. Without a well-educated population, natural resources cannot be managed effectively, institutions cannot function properly, and innovation cannot take place. Beyond vocational skills, education shapes values, critical thinking, and civic responsibility. An educated citizenry is better positioned to hold its leaders accountable, demand transparent governance, and resist manipulation and division. However, education in Nigeria faces serious challenges: underfunded schools, inadequate facilities, poorly paid teachers, and high dropout rates particularly in rural areas and among girls. These challenges require urgent government attention, increased budgetary allocation, and community involvement. In conclusion, the investment a nation makes in education is an investment in its own future. Nigeria cannot achieve its development goals without first building an education system that is accessible, equitable, and of high quality for every child, regardless of background or location.
Theory Q2: Explain any FIVE literary devices used in poetry and give an example of each.
Model Answer: 1. Simile: A comparison using ‘like’ or ‘as’. Example: ‘Her voice was like music flowing from a stream.’ 2. Metaphor: A direct comparison without ‘like’ or ‘as’. Example: ‘Life is a journey with many unexpected turns.’ 3. Personification: Giving human qualities to non-human things. Example: ‘The moon watched over the sleeping city.’ 4. Alliteration: Repetition of the same consonant sound at the start of words. Example: ‘Peter Piper picked a peck of pickled peppers.’ 5. Irony: Saying the opposite of what is meant, or a situation contrary to expectations. Example: A fire station burning down. Or: ‘What wonderful weather’ said during a heavy rainstorm. Bonus: Hyperbole is deliberate exaggeration for effect. Example: ‘I have told you a million times.’
BIOLOGY: Theory Questions
Theory Q3: Describe the process of photosynthesis and state the factors that affect its rate.
Model Answer: Photosynthesis is the process by which green plants manufacture food using light energy, carbon dioxide, and water, producing glucose and releasing oxygen as a by-product. The equation is: 6CO₂ + 6H₂O + light energy → C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6O₂ It occurs in two stages: 1. Light-dependent reaction: Takes place in the thylakoid membranes of the chloroplast. Light energy is used to split water molecules (photolysis), releasing oxygen and producing ATP and NADPH. 2. Light-independent reaction (Calvin Cycle): Takes place in the stroma. CO₂ is fixed using ATP and NADPH to produce glucose. Factors affecting the rate of photosynthesis: 1. Light intensity: Higher light intensity increases the rate up to a saturation point. 2. Carbon dioxide concentration: Higher CO₂ increases the rate until another factor becomes limiting. 3. Temperature: Photosynthesis increases with temperature up to an optimum (around 25-30°C) then declines as enzymes denature. 4. Water availability: Severe water shortage closes stomata, reducing CO₂ entry. 5. Chlorophyll concentration: More chlorophyll means greater light absorption.
Theory Q4: Explain the difference between mitosis and meiosis. State where each occurs in the human body.
Model Answer: Mitosis is cell division that produces two genetically identical daughter cells, each with the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell (diploid, 2n). It is used for growth, repair, and asexual reproduction. In the human body, mitosis occurs in somatic (body) cells such as skin cells, liver cells, and muscle cells. Meiosis is cell division that produces four genetically diverse daughter cells, each with half the chromosome number of the parent cell (haploid, n). It involves two divisions (Meiosis I and II). In the human body, meiosis occurs in the gonads: the testes (producing sperm) and ovaries (producing eggs). Key differences: – Mitosis: 2 daughter cells; diploid; genetically identical; one division. – Meiosis: 4 daughter cells; haploid; genetically varied (due to crossing over); two divisions. Meiosis maintains the chromosome number across generations by halving it in gametes, which then fuse at fertilisation to restore the full number.
CHEMISTRY: Theory Questions
Theory Q5: (a) What is the difference between an atom and a molecule? (b) Give two examples of each. (c) Define isotopes and give an example.
Model Answer: (a) An atom is the smallest unit of a chemical element that retains the properties of that element. It consists of a nucleus (protons and neutrons) surrounded by electrons. A molecule is formed when two or more atoms are chemically bonded together. A molecule may be made of atoms of the same element or different elements. (b) Examples of atoms: Hydrogen (H), Carbon (C), Oxygen (O). Examples of molecules: Water (H₂O – two hydrogen atoms and one oxygen atom), Carbon dioxide (CO₂), Oxygen gas (O₂ – two oxygen atoms bonded together). (c) Isotopes are atoms of the same element that have the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons, giving them different mass numbers. Example: Carbon has three isotopes: Carbon-12 (6 protons, 6 neutrons), Carbon-13 (6 protons, 7 neutrons), and Carbon-14 (6 protons, 8 neutrons). All are carbon, but their masses differ.
PHYSICS: Theory Questions
Theory Q6: State Newton’s three laws of motion and give a practical example of each.
Model Answer: Newton’s First Law (Law of Inertia): An object remains at rest or in uniform motion in a straight line unless acted upon by an external force. Example: A passenger in a car lurches forward when the car stops suddenly. The passenger’s body was moving with the car and continues moving forward due to inertia when the car decelerates. Newton’s Second Law: The acceleration of an object is directly proportional to the applied force and inversely proportional to its mass. (F = ma) Example: Pushing a shopping trolley with a heavier load requires more force to produce the same acceleration as a lighter trolley. The heavier the mass, the greater the force needed. Newton’s Third Law: For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction. Example: When a gun is fired, the bullet is propelled forward (action) and the gun recoils backward (reaction). A rocket moves upward by expelling gas downward is another example.
ECONOMICS: Theory Questions
Theory Q7: Explain the concepts of demand and supply, and describe how they interact to determine equilibrium price.
Model Answer: Demand refers to the quantity of a good or service that consumers are willing and able to purchase at various prices during a given period. The Law of Demand states that as price rises, quantity demanded falls, and vice versa (inverse relationship). Supply refers to the quantity of a good or service that producers are willing and able to offer for sale at various prices during a given period. The Law of Supply states that as price rises, quantity supplied increases (direct relationship). Equilibrium price (also called market-clearing price) is the price at which the quantity demanded equals the quantity supplied. Graphically, it is where the demand curve and supply curve intersect. If price is above equilibrium, there is excess supply (surplus): producers have unsold goods and lower their price to attract buyers. If price is below equilibrium, there is excess demand (shortage): buyers compete for limited goods and price is bid upward. Both forces push the price back toward equilibrium. In Nigeria, equilibrium applies in markets for food, manufactured goods, currency exchange, and labour. Understanding it helps explain price fluctuations in Nigerian markets.
Final Message to Every JAMB 2026/2027 Candidate
You have just worked through 50 objective questions and 7 theory questions across the major JAMB subjects. Every answer has been explained so that you understand the concept, not just the correct letter.
Here is the truth about JAMB preparation: the candidates who score 300 and above are not necessarily the most brilliant students. They are the students who practised the most past questions, studied the official syllabus consistently, and walked into the CBT centre without surprises.
Use the AI prompts in Part 1 of this document to generate unlimited additional practice questions for your specific subject combination. Practise every day, even if it is just 10 questions. Consistency beats intensity.
Quick JAMB 2026 Final Checklist: Read the official JAMB syllabus for your four subjects (available on ibass.jamb.gov.ng) Read The Lekki Headmaster (approved 2026 JAMB novel for Use of English) Practice CBT on a computer before exam day Know your exam date, centre, and required documents Do not bring phones, programmable calculators, or any foreign materials into the hall Report to your CBT centre at least 30 minutes before your start time On exam day: read every question carefully, manage your time, and do not guess blindly
Nigeria needs your generation. Study hard. Score high. Get into that university. Your future begins with this exam. You are ready.
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